Have no clue whether that is true (that Marlowe responded to a wreck involving Riley's wife) but given that there was nothing in the interviews that indicated that, I have trouble believing it. Wouldn't she have brought that up ONCE if she felt like the reporter has a vendetta against her? Would that not be a VERY simple thing to prove? (And no, she hasn't, not once.) The problem is, that is always how we catch a break in a case, someone gets ticked off about someone else and blows the whistle.